Is there an intuitive reason as to why the harmonic series is divergent? [duplicate] The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhy does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?Why do we say the harmonic series is divergent?What to plug in for n for this particular power seriesWhy does the power rule work?Why does the harmonic series diverge but the p-harmonic series convergeWhy does this series divergent?$n$th derivative of $f(x)$ using limit definitionExplain why series divergent or convergentHow would one calculate $lim_ntoinftyn((1+frac1n)^n-e)$?A question about divergent series related to the harmonic seriesAre these modified harmonic series divergent?

I believe this to be a fraud - hired, then asked to cash check and send cash as Bitcoin

What connection does MS Office have to Netscape Navigator?

Which one is the true statement?

Plot of histogram similar to output from @risk

Prepend last line of stdin to entire stdin

Does increasing your ability score affect your main stat?

Why does standard notation not preserve intervals (visually)

Why doesn't UK go for the same deal Japan has with EU to resolve Brexit?

How to get from Geneva Airport to Metabief?

WOW air has ceased operation, can I get my tickets refunded?

Is there a way to save my career from absolute disaster?

Is there a difference between "Fahrstuhl" and "Aufzug"

Do I need to write [sic] when a number is less than 10 but isn't written out?

How to sed chunks text from a stream of files from find

What does "Its cash flow is deeply negative" mean?

Does soap repel water?

Help understanding this unsettling image of Titan, Epimetheus, and Saturn's rings?

Why isn't acceleration always zero whenever velocity is zero, such as the moment a ball bounces off a wall?

Solving system of ODEs with extra parameter

Why don't programming languages automatically manage the synchronous/asynchronous problem?

How to invert MapIndexed on a ragged structure? How to construct a tree from rules?

Why do airplanes bank sharply to the right after air-to-air refueling?

Why did CATV standarize in 75 ohms and everyone else in 50?

Need help understanding a power circuit (caps and diodes)



Is there an intuitive reason as to why the harmonic series is divergent? [duplicate]



The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhy does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?Why do we say the harmonic series is divergent?What to plug in for n for this particular power seriesWhy does the power rule work?Why does the harmonic series diverge but the p-harmonic series convergeWhy does this series divergent?$n$th derivative of $f(x)$ using limit definitionExplain why series divergent or convergentHow would one calculate $lim_ntoinftyn((1+frac1n)^n-e)$?A question about divergent series related to the harmonic seriesAre these modified harmonic series divergent?










0












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:



  • Why does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?

    21 answers



The proof involving partial sums up to the nth term, where n is some power of $2$, completely makes sense. But just looking at the series itself, it seems very strange that it's divergent.



For large values of $n$, $a_n$ would start being extremely small and having an indistinguishable effect on the overall sum. All the sixth sense I've gained from working with limits makes it seem really strange that this would be considered divergent.



Surely there is a number (not even that difficult to find) such that we don't have enough computational power to calculate it's difference with the next terms (seeing as we'd be calculating differences based on hundreds of decimal places).



If you've any intuition on this I'd very much love to hear it!



Edit: I'm not asking for the proof of why it's divergent, I'm asking for peoples' personal ways of thinking and making sense of this intuitively. The post suggested to have been duplicated presents formal proofs; that's not what I'm looking for :)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Wojowu, user21820, José Carlos Santos calculus
Users with the  calculus badge can single-handedly close calculus questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

StackExchange.ready(function()
if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return;

$('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function()
var $hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),
$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');

$hover.hover(
function()
$hover.showInfoMessage('',
messageElement: $msg.clone().show(),
transient: false,
position: my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 ,
dismissable: false,
relativeToBody: true
);
,
function()
StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages();

);
);
);
7 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

















  • $begingroup$
    Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    9 hours ago







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
    $endgroup$
    – Jan
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – L KM
    9 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
    $endgroup$
    – user54038
    9 hours ago















0












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:



  • Why does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?

    21 answers



The proof involving partial sums up to the nth term, where n is some power of $2$, completely makes sense. But just looking at the series itself, it seems very strange that it's divergent.



For large values of $n$, $a_n$ would start being extremely small and having an indistinguishable effect on the overall sum. All the sixth sense I've gained from working with limits makes it seem really strange that this would be considered divergent.



Surely there is a number (not even that difficult to find) such that we don't have enough computational power to calculate it's difference with the next terms (seeing as we'd be calculating differences based on hundreds of decimal places).



If you've any intuition on this I'd very much love to hear it!



Edit: I'm not asking for the proof of why it's divergent, I'm asking for peoples' personal ways of thinking and making sense of this intuitively. The post suggested to have been duplicated presents formal proofs; that's not what I'm looking for :)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Wojowu, user21820, José Carlos Santos calculus
Users with the  calculus badge can single-handedly close calculus questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

StackExchange.ready(function()
if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return;

$('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function()
var $hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),
$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');

$hover.hover(
function()
$hover.showInfoMessage('',
messageElement: $msg.clone().show(),
transient: false,
position: my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 ,
dismissable: false,
relativeToBody: true
);
,
function()
StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages();

);
);
);
7 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

















  • $begingroup$
    Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    9 hours ago







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
    $endgroup$
    – Jan
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – L KM
    9 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
    $endgroup$
    – user54038
    9 hours ago













0












0








0


1



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:



  • Why does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?

    21 answers



The proof involving partial sums up to the nth term, where n is some power of $2$, completely makes sense. But just looking at the series itself, it seems very strange that it's divergent.



For large values of $n$, $a_n$ would start being extremely small and having an indistinguishable effect on the overall sum. All the sixth sense I've gained from working with limits makes it seem really strange that this would be considered divergent.



Surely there is a number (not even that difficult to find) such that we don't have enough computational power to calculate it's difference with the next terms (seeing as we'd be calculating differences based on hundreds of decimal places).



If you've any intuition on this I'd very much love to hear it!



Edit: I'm not asking for the proof of why it's divergent, I'm asking for peoples' personal ways of thinking and making sense of this intuitively. The post suggested to have been duplicated presents formal proofs; that's not what I'm looking for :)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:



  • Why does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?

    21 answers



The proof involving partial sums up to the nth term, where n is some power of $2$, completely makes sense. But just looking at the series itself, it seems very strange that it's divergent.



For large values of $n$, $a_n$ would start being extremely small and having an indistinguishable effect on the overall sum. All the sixth sense I've gained from working with limits makes it seem really strange that this would be considered divergent.



Surely there is a number (not even that difficult to find) such that we don't have enough computational power to calculate it's difference with the next terms (seeing as we'd be calculating differences based on hundreds of decimal places).



If you've any intuition on this I'd very much love to hear it!



Edit: I'm not asking for the proof of why it's divergent, I'm asking for peoples' personal ways of thinking and making sense of this intuitively. The post suggested to have been duplicated presents formal proofs; that's not what I'm looking for :)





This question already has an answer here:



  • Why does the series $sum_n=1^inftyfrac1n$ not converge?

    21 answers







calculus sequences-and-series






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 7 hours ago







James Ronald

















asked 9 hours ago









James RonaldJames Ronald

1847




1847




marked as duplicate by Wojowu, user21820, José Carlos Santos calculus
Users with the  calculus badge can single-handedly close calculus questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

StackExchange.ready(function()
if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return;

$('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function()
var $hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),
$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');

$hover.hover(
function()
$hover.showInfoMessage('',
messageElement: $msg.clone().show(),
transient: false,
position: my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 ,
dismissable: false,
relativeToBody: true
);
,
function()
StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages();

);
);
);
7 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Wojowu, user21820, José Carlos Santos calculus
Users with the  calculus badge can single-handedly close calculus questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

StackExchange.ready(function()
if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return;

$('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function()
var $hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),
$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');

$hover.hover(
function()
$hover.showInfoMessage('',
messageElement: $msg.clone().show(),
transient: false,
position: my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 ,
dismissable: false,
relativeToBody: true
);
,
function()
StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages();

);
);
);
7 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.













  • $begingroup$
    Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    9 hours ago







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
    $endgroup$
    – Jan
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – L KM
    9 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
    $endgroup$
    – user54038
    9 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
    $endgroup$
    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    9 hours ago







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
    $endgroup$
    – Jan
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
    $endgroup$
    – L KM
    9 hours ago







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
    $endgroup$
    – user54038
    9 hours ago















$begingroup$
Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
$endgroup$
– Sujit Bhattacharyya
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Intitutive reason: youtube.com/watch?v=aKl7Gwh297c
$endgroup$
– Sujit Bhattacharyya
9 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
$endgroup$
– Henry
9 hours ago





$begingroup$
There are a very large number of very small values. The question is which very effect dominates when adding these up (in a sense you are multiplying very large by very small), and it seems intuitively plausible that in some cases very large number can be more important than very small value but not in other cases
$endgroup$
– Henry
9 hours ago





3




3




$begingroup$
In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
$endgroup$
– Jan
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
In Analysis, our professor told us for intuitively understanding those things, we have to think in the way "that series are approximately integrals : $sum approx int$". So we see $ int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx = ln(x)vert_1^infty = infty$. On the other hand, we know that the series $sum_k frac1k^2$ converges. Considering an integral, we have $int_1^infty fracmathrmdxx^2 = - frac1xvert_1^infty = 1 < infty$. For me, this idea is good because I understand integrals better than series.
$endgroup$
– Jan
9 hours ago












$begingroup$
Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
$endgroup$
– L KM
9 hours ago





$begingroup$
Consider the following intuition, Going into hyperreals, note that there exists $epsilon$ infinitesimal that is greater than any $1/n$. Then harmonic series 'sum to' $omega cdot epsilon =1$, where $omega := 1/epsilon$ , 'approximately' is the number of terms. For other $p$-series, where $pgt 1$, they 'sum to' $omega cdot 1/epsilon ^p = epsilon^1-p$ which is still infinitesimal. Hence making a difference.
$endgroup$
– L KM
9 hours ago





1




1




$begingroup$
I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
$endgroup$
– user54038
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
I think the connection to the logarithm brought up by @Jan is important. For high values of n, the partial sums are approximately log(n) + γ. And log(n) is proportional to the number of digits of n, ±1. So your question is like, "when n is a very large number, adding 1 almost certainly has no effect on the number of digits of n. Doesn't that mean that there's a maximum number of digits?" And the answer is no, because you can increase the number of digits by multiplying by 10--just like how the proof you mentioned does *2.
$endgroup$
– user54038
9 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

From Real Infinite Series by Bonar:



We know that, for $x>-1$, $$x geq ln(1+x)$$ Now $$sum_1^n frac1kgeq sum_1^n lnleft(1+frac1kright)=ln(n+1) longrightarrow infty$$ as $n to infty$ and hence the divergence of the harmonic series follows




We can interpret this argument in a much more strikingly visual way as follows:



Consider the following graph of the function $g(x) = sin(pi e^x)$, shown below, We consider $g$ as a function only of positive reals, We know that this function is defined for arbitrarily large $x$. We also know that $sin x$ is zero at integer multiples of $pi$, so that $g$ has zeros whenever $e^x$ is integer-valued, which happens of course for $x$ of the form $log n$. The distance between consecutive zeros is of the form $log(k + 1) — log k$, which by the argument above is a lower bound to $1/k$. This is the motivation for the choice of the function $g$—the oscillations make visible the segments between zeros, and the lengths of these segments estimate the terms of the harmonic series. If the harmonic series were to converge to some number $N$, then the length sum of all the segments between zeros of $g$, since they are smaller, would also be bounded above by $N$. Then $g$ could have no further zeros right of the vertical line $x = N$, but we know this does not happen. Again we emphasize that this contains no mathematical content not present in the argument above, only a new way to make it tangible.



enter image description here




Added: Also the author of the above mentioned book gives $11$ proofs of " $sum frac1n$ is divergent". So refer this book for more details!






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




















    1












    $begingroup$

    Variation of the proof cited by the OP: let be $S_n$ the $n$-th partial sum:
    $$S_2n - S_n = sum_k=n+1^2nfrac1kge(2n - n)frac12n = frac12.$$
    (lower bound: number of terms times smallest term)






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



















      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3












      $begingroup$

      From Real Infinite Series by Bonar:



      We know that, for $x>-1$, $$x geq ln(1+x)$$ Now $$sum_1^n frac1kgeq sum_1^n lnleft(1+frac1kright)=ln(n+1) longrightarrow infty$$ as $n to infty$ and hence the divergence of the harmonic series follows




      We can interpret this argument in a much more strikingly visual way as follows:



      Consider the following graph of the function $g(x) = sin(pi e^x)$, shown below, We consider $g$ as a function only of positive reals, We know that this function is defined for arbitrarily large $x$. We also know that $sin x$ is zero at integer multiples of $pi$, so that $g$ has zeros whenever $e^x$ is integer-valued, which happens of course for $x$ of the form $log n$. The distance between consecutive zeros is of the form $log(k + 1) — log k$, which by the argument above is a lower bound to $1/k$. This is the motivation for the choice of the function $g$—the oscillations make visible the segments between zeros, and the lengths of these segments estimate the terms of the harmonic series. If the harmonic series were to converge to some number $N$, then the length sum of all the segments between zeros of $g$, since they are smaller, would also be bounded above by $N$. Then $g$ could have no further zeros right of the vertical line $x = N$, but we know this does not happen. Again we emphasize that this contains no mathematical content not present in the argument above, only a new way to make it tangible.



      enter image description here




      Added: Also the author of the above mentioned book gives $11$ proofs of " $sum frac1n$ is divergent". So refer this book for more details!






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$

















        3












        $begingroup$

        From Real Infinite Series by Bonar:



        We know that, for $x>-1$, $$x geq ln(1+x)$$ Now $$sum_1^n frac1kgeq sum_1^n lnleft(1+frac1kright)=ln(n+1) longrightarrow infty$$ as $n to infty$ and hence the divergence of the harmonic series follows




        We can interpret this argument in a much more strikingly visual way as follows:



        Consider the following graph of the function $g(x) = sin(pi e^x)$, shown below, We consider $g$ as a function only of positive reals, We know that this function is defined for arbitrarily large $x$. We also know that $sin x$ is zero at integer multiples of $pi$, so that $g$ has zeros whenever $e^x$ is integer-valued, which happens of course for $x$ of the form $log n$. The distance between consecutive zeros is of the form $log(k + 1) — log k$, which by the argument above is a lower bound to $1/k$. This is the motivation for the choice of the function $g$—the oscillations make visible the segments between zeros, and the lengths of these segments estimate the terms of the harmonic series. If the harmonic series were to converge to some number $N$, then the length sum of all the segments between zeros of $g$, since they are smaller, would also be bounded above by $N$. Then $g$ could have no further zeros right of the vertical line $x = N$, but we know this does not happen. Again we emphasize that this contains no mathematical content not present in the argument above, only a new way to make it tangible.



        enter image description here




        Added: Also the author of the above mentioned book gives $11$ proofs of " $sum frac1n$ is divergent". So refer this book for more details!






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          From Real Infinite Series by Bonar:



          We know that, for $x>-1$, $$x geq ln(1+x)$$ Now $$sum_1^n frac1kgeq sum_1^n lnleft(1+frac1kright)=ln(n+1) longrightarrow infty$$ as $n to infty$ and hence the divergence of the harmonic series follows




          We can interpret this argument in a much more strikingly visual way as follows:



          Consider the following graph of the function $g(x) = sin(pi e^x)$, shown below, We consider $g$ as a function only of positive reals, We know that this function is defined for arbitrarily large $x$. We also know that $sin x$ is zero at integer multiples of $pi$, so that $g$ has zeros whenever $e^x$ is integer-valued, which happens of course for $x$ of the form $log n$. The distance between consecutive zeros is of the form $log(k + 1) — log k$, which by the argument above is a lower bound to $1/k$. This is the motivation for the choice of the function $g$—the oscillations make visible the segments between zeros, and the lengths of these segments estimate the terms of the harmonic series. If the harmonic series were to converge to some number $N$, then the length sum of all the segments between zeros of $g$, since they are smaller, would also be bounded above by $N$. Then $g$ could have no further zeros right of the vertical line $x = N$, but we know this does not happen. Again we emphasize that this contains no mathematical content not present in the argument above, only a new way to make it tangible.



          enter image description here




          Added: Also the author of the above mentioned book gives $11$ proofs of " $sum frac1n$ is divergent". So refer this book for more details!






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          From Real Infinite Series by Bonar:



          We know that, for $x>-1$, $$x geq ln(1+x)$$ Now $$sum_1^n frac1kgeq sum_1^n lnleft(1+frac1kright)=ln(n+1) longrightarrow infty$$ as $n to infty$ and hence the divergence of the harmonic series follows




          We can interpret this argument in a much more strikingly visual way as follows:



          Consider the following graph of the function $g(x) = sin(pi e^x)$, shown below, We consider $g$ as a function only of positive reals, We know that this function is defined for arbitrarily large $x$. We also know that $sin x$ is zero at integer multiples of $pi$, so that $g$ has zeros whenever $e^x$ is integer-valued, which happens of course for $x$ of the form $log n$. The distance between consecutive zeros is of the form $log(k + 1) — log k$, which by the argument above is a lower bound to $1/k$. This is the motivation for the choice of the function $g$—the oscillations make visible the segments between zeros, and the lengths of these segments estimate the terms of the harmonic series. If the harmonic series were to converge to some number $N$, then the length sum of all the segments between zeros of $g$, since they are smaller, would also be bounded above by $N$. Then $g$ could have no further zeros right of the vertical line $x = N$, but we know this does not happen. Again we emphasize that this contains no mathematical content not present in the argument above, only a new way to make it tangible.



          enter image description here




          Added: Also the author of the above mentioned book gives $11$ proofs of " $sum frac1n$ is divergent". So refer this book for more details!







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 8 hours ago

























          answered 8 hours ago









          Chinnapparaj RChinnapparaj R

          5,8602928




          5,8602928





















              1












              $begingroup$

              Variation of the proof cited by the OP: let be $S_n$ the $n$-th partial sum:
              $$S_2n - S_n = sum_k=n+1^2nfrac1kge(2n - n)frac12n = frac12.$$
              (lower bound: number of terms times smallest term)






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                1












                $begingroup$

                Variation of the proof cited by the OP: let be $S_n$ the $n$-th partial sum:
                $$S_2n - S_n = sum_k=n+1^2nfrac1kge(2n - n)frac12n = frac12.$$
                (lower bound: number of terms times smallest term)






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Variation of the proof cited by the OP: let be $S_n$ the $n$-th partial sum:
                  $$S_2n - S_n = sum_k=n+1^2nfrac1kge(2n - n)frac12n = frac12.$$
                  (lower bound: number of terms times smallest term)






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Variation of the proof cited by the OP: let be $S_n$ the $n$-th partial sum:
                  $$S_2n - S_n = sum_k=n+1^2nfrac1kge(2n - n)frac12n = frac12.$$
                  (lower bound: number of terms times smallest term)







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 6 hours ago









                  David C. Ullrich

                  61.7k43995




                  61.7k43995










                  answered 8 hours ago









                  Martín-Blas Pérez PinillaMartín-Blas Pérez Pinilla

                  34.9k42971




                  34.9k42971













                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Tórshavn Kliima | Partnerstääden | Luke uk diar | Nawigatsjuun62° 1′ N, 6° 46′ W62° 1′ 0″ N, 6° 46′ 0″ WWMOTórshavn

                      南部首創開放式體驗廚房 用智慧廚具做出好料理

                      大學姐愛和弟洗澡 突襲浴室求共浴